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I cannot prove that: If P is a prime number, and Q < P (or Q is not a multiple of P), then Q^(P-1) -1 must be a multiple of P.

in Math Problems

I tried many times to get help from many people but no one wants to answer me.

1 answer1 reply

2 Comments

srijanmukhopadhyay15

Jan 04, 2021

Hello....If I Am not wrong... This is Fermat's little theorem...isn't it?

jjunxianlu

Jan 05, 2021

Replying to

I don't know. About two years ago, I unintentionally found that for 3, 5 and 7 the statement is true. At first I guess it is true for all odd numbers. Then I tried for 9, 11,13, 15, and found that it is not true for 9 and 15. Then in subsequent two years I tried two more numbers 17 and 19, they are both true. Hence I guess that it is true for all prime numbers. However, I just cannot prove it.

blackpenredpen

math for fun

I cannot prove that: If P is a prime number, and Q < P (or Q is not a multiple of P), then Q^(P-1) -1 must be a multiple of P.